Physical Security Professional v1.0

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Exam contains 140 questions

Before system operator training can begin, each facility alarm point should:

  • A. allow flexible response times.
  • B. have detailed operating procedures.
  • C. integrate with other security equipment.
  • D. list a generic response format.


Answer : B

A principal goal of risk analysis is to:

  • A. limit the impact of risk and legal exposure.
  • B. balance the impact of risk against the cost of countermeasures.
  • C. protect the enterprise from the risk of serious loss.
  • D. reduce insurance premiums.


Answer : B

Which of the following is an example of a preventative maintenance measure?

  • A. Conducting periodic resistance testing
  • B. Replacing hardware components to keep equipment up to current specifications
  • C. Establishing a maintenance function that acts on and logs requests from users in the event of a system problem
  • D. Reporting the problem and recommending resolutions


Answer : B

Strategies to mitigate damage to communications systems include all of the following EXCEPT:

  • A. emergency duress processes.
  • B. replacement agreements.
  • C. divergent routing.
  • D. hot/cold sites.


Answer : B

How an organization's human resources are managed will impact the success or failure of:

  • A. recovery effects.
  • B. effective management.
  • C. risk assessment.
  • D. crisis management.


Answer : B

Human space, as described by CPTED, involves all of the following characteristics except:

  • A. open access.
  • B. some designated purpose.
  • C. social and cultural definitions.
  • D. legal and physical definitions.


Answer : A

Which of the following includes an exhaustive physical examination of a facility and a thorough inspection of all operating systems and procedures?

  • A. Vulnerability analysis
  • B. Risk report
  • C. Loss-prevention assessment
  • D. Security survey


Answer : D

After determining the significant threats or hazards to an organization, the next step for the security practitioner would be to:

  • A. write security monitoring procedures.
  • B. determine preventive measures.
  • C. develop a response plan.
  • D. estimate the likelihood of occurrence.


Answer : B

Electronic and hardware system test methods should be prepared during the:

  • A. training or commissioning phase.
  • B. final system acceptance.
  • C. factory acceptance.
  • D. design or installation phase.


Answer : D

Identifying potential loss areas and developing and installing appropriate security countermeasures is a process known as:

  • A. threat assessment.
  • B. an operational security review.
  • C. a business impact analysis.
  • D. risk analysis.


Answer : D

A well-engineered physical protection system should include:

  • A. protection in depth, minimum consequence of component failure, and balanced protection.
  • B. low cost, protection in depth, and balanced protection.
  • C. protection in depth, balanced protection, and location of the response force.
  • D. minimum consequence of component failure, low cost, and protection in depth.


Answer : D

According to the Physical Protection System project rules of thumb, which of the following will comprise the largest percentage of a system's cost?

  • A. Design and engineering
  • B. Hardware and software
  • C. Installation
  • D. Contingency


Answer : B

Which of the following alarm devices is the best method of protecting a metal container such as a safe or file cabinet?

  • A. Ultrasound
  • B. Capacitance
  • C. Motion detection
  • D. Vibration detection


Answer : D

The critical detection point on a given path is defined as the point where:

  • A. the adversary is closer to the asset than to the outermost protective layer.
  • B. any sensor detects the presence of the adversary.
  • C. the adversary is closer to success than defeat.
  • D. the delay time remaining exceeds the response force time.


Answer : D

Which of the following is NOT true of perimeter intrusion-detection clear zones?

  • A. They create minimum setback.
  • B. They provide good visual assessment of alarms.
  • C. They increase the probability of detection.
  • D. They are usually used at high-security facilities.


Answer : A

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Exam contains 140 questions

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