ITIL Foundation v1.0

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When can a known error record be raised?
1. At any time it would be useful to do so
2. After a workaround has been found

  • A. 2 only
  • B. 1 only
  • C. Neither of the above
  • D. Both of the above


Answer : D

Explanation:

What body exists to support the authorization of changes and to assist change management in the assessment and prioritization of changes?

  • A. The change authorization board
  • B. The change advisory board
  • C. The change implementer
  • D. The change manager


Answer : B

Explanation:

Which process is responsible for discussing reports with customers showing whether services have met their targets?

  • A. Continual service improvement
  • B. Change management
  • C. Service level management
  • D. Availability management


Answer : C

Explanation:

What do customer perceptions and business outcomes help to define?

  • A. The value of a service
  • B. Governance
  • C. Total cost of ownership (TCO)
  • D. Key performance indicators (KPIs)


Answer : A

Explanation:

Which of the following are basic concepts used in access management?

  • A. Personnel, electronic, network, emergency, identity
  • B. Rights, access, identity, directory services, service/service components
  • C. Physical, personnel, network, emergency, service
  • D. Normal, temporary, emergency, personal, group


Answer : B

Explanation:

Which of these statements about resources and capabilities is CORRECT?

  • A. Resources are types of service asset and capabilities are not
  • B. Resources and capabilities are both types of service asset
  • C. Capabilities are types of service asset and resources are not
  • D. Neither capabilities nor resources are types of service asset


Answer : B

Explanation:

Within service design, what is the key output handed over to service transition?

  • A. Measurement, methods and metrics
  • B. Service design package
  • C. Service portfolio design
  • D. Process definitions


Answer : B

Explanation:

What should a service always deliver to customers?

  • A. Applications
  • B. Infrastructure
  • C. Value
  • D. Resources


Answer : C

Explanation:

Which process is responsible for the availability, confidentiality and integrity of data?

  • A. Service catalogue management
  • B. Service asset and configuration management
  • C. Change management
  • D. Information security management


Answer : D

Explanation:

Availability management is directly responsible for the availability of which of the following?

  • A. IT services and components
  • B. IT services and business processes
  • C. Components and business processes
  • D. IT services, components and business processes


Answer : A

Explanation:

What type of baseline captures the structure, contents and details of the infrastructure and represents a set of items that are related to each other?

  • A. Configuration baseline
  • B. Project baseline
  • C. Change baseline
  • D. Asset baseline


Answer : A

Explanation:

Which of the following BEST describes the purpose of access management?

  • A. To provide a channel for users to request and receive standard services
  • B. Provides the rights for users to be able to use a service or group of services
  • C. To prevent problems and resulting Incidents from happening
  • D. To detect security events and make sense of them


Answer : B

Explanation:

Which of the following are reasons why ITIL is successful?
1. ITIL is vendor neutral
2. It does not prescribe actions
3. ITIL represents best practice

  • A. All of the above
  • B. 1 and 3 only
  • C. 1 and 2 only
  • D. 2 and 3 only


Answer : A

Explanation:

Which one of the following includes four stages called Plan, Do, Check and Act?

  • A. The Deming Cycle
  • B. The continual service improvement approach
  • C. The seven-step improvement process
  • D. The service lifecycle


Answer : A

Explanation:

The consideration of value creation is a principle of which stage of the service lifecycle?

  • A. Continual service improvement
  • B. Service strategy
  • C. Service design
  • D. Service transition


Answer : B

Explanation:

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Exam contains 549 questions
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