Enterprise Network Unified Access Essentials v1.0

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Exam contains 36 questions

In the Cisco Unified Wireless Network infrastructure, which combination of devices and/or features best accomplishes high availability?

  • A. backup controllers and client SSO
  • B. backup controllers and LAG
  • C. N+1 and client state replication
  • D. N+1 and backup controllers


Answer : A

Which feature should you recommend if a customer has high-density wireless deployments and they want to monitor bandwidth consumption and manage network resource utilization?

  • A. CleanAir
  • B. Bonjour
  • C. ACL
  • D. AVC


Answer : D

Which set of Converged Access components is related to "physical" entities?

  • A. mobility agent, mobility controller, mobility oracle
  • B. mobility controller, mobility groups, switch peer group
  • C. mobility groups, switch peer group
  • D. mobility oracle, switch peer group, mobility domain


Answer : A

In the Converged Access solution, how does the controller display the access point name when there is no existing configuration for the AP?

  • A. AP+IP address dotted decimal, for example, AP10.10.1.1
  • B. AP+Ethernet MAC Address, for example, AP44d3:ca42.4337
  • C. AP+IP address in hex, for example, AP0A.0A.01.01
  • D. AP+Base Radio MAC Address, for example, AP18.33.9d.f1.40.50


Answer : B

When the Cisco Catalyst 3850 is configured as a wireless mobility agent, what must be true?

  • A. Cisco ISE must be joined to Microsoft AD.
  • B. Access points must be connected directly to the Catalyst 3850.
  • C. Access points may be connected anywhere in the network.
  • D. The mobility controller must be CT5760.


Answer : B

Which option is performed exclusively by the mobility agent?

  • A. key distribution to all mobility controllers
  • B. 802.11 device location calculation
  • C. CAPWAP tunnels termination
  • D. central radio resource management tasks


Answer : C

Which statement about single SSID wireless BYOD is true?

  • A. uses only secure wireless
  • B. has a dedicated open SSID for onboarding provisioning
  • C. has a separate secure SSID for enhanced security on the network
  • D. supports guests and employees and is the preferred method


Answer : A

When managing Security Group Access in Cisco ISE 1.2, what is the description of the mapped cells matrix element?

  • A. the source SGT names and the assigned 16-bit tag
  • B. the destination SGT names and the assigned 16-bit tag
  • C. when a source and destination pair of SGTs is not assigned any SGACLs or a status
  • D. when a source and destination pair of SGTs is assigned an order of SGACLs and has a specified status


Answer : D

Before you implement BYOD onboarding, which two client provisioning resources should you download from Cisco.com to ISE?

  • A. ISE posture agent profile, BYOD on-boarding profile
  • B. BYOD on-boarding profile, native supplicant profile
  • C. guest service portal agents, agent resources from Cisco cite
  • D. supplicant provisioning wizard, WebAgent


Answer : D

When a user gets redirected to the device registration portal, which important information field is prepopulated by ISE?

  • A. user's username
  • B. user's first and last name
  • C. device ID with IP address
  • D. device ID with MAC address


Answer : D

When building the Security Group Egress Policy Matrix, what is the default policy regarding empty intersecting cells?

  • A. enabled, SGACLs : permit IP
  • B. enabled, SGACLs : deny IP
  • C. disabled, SGACLs : permit IP
  • D. disabled, SGACLs : deny IP


Answer : A

A customer wants to dynamically monitor the status of a critical route. Which feature should you recommend that the customer use?

  • A. Wireshark
  • B. Embedded Event Manager
  • C. IP Service Level Agreement
  • D. Generic Online Diagnostics


Answer : C

A customer is configuring the IP SLA Embedded Event Manager applet. What is the meaning of this configuration line within the applet: "event track 100 state down"?

  • A. Track 100 down state events and create a syslog message when the 100th down state is detected.
  • B. The tracking event "100" configured separately is used to detect the down state.
  • C. If there is a down state for 100 seconds, trigger the applet actions.
  • D. Stop tracking the interface if it flaps more than 100 times.


Answer : B

A network administrator is using the Embedded Event Manager, which is supporting multiple actions initiated from the script. Which two policy actions can be used within the EEM? (Choose two)

  • A. Execute a Tcl script.
  • B. Send an email.
  • C. Run another policy.
  • D. Hot swap the supervisor.
  • E. Manually send an SNMP trap.


Answer : BC

Which feature is used on the Catalyst 6500 Series Switch for real-time traffic capture and decoding?

  • A. Lancope Lite
  • B. Packet Monitor
  • C. Mini Protocol Analyzer
  • D. Inline Wireshark module


Answer : C

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Exam contains 36 questions

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